- In verse 13, when the LORD quotes Sarah’s statement in verse 12, he does not quote it exactly. He says what she said, but not using the same words.
- In verse 19, God states that he wanted Abraham to teach his children to follow God and do what was right. Does this mean that a parents’ teaching is an integral part of learning to do the right thing? But if God wanted Abraham’s descendants to follow him, asking Abraham to teach them so would do the job. What else would he do? Appear to each generation?
- Verses 20 and 21 disturb me. God said that the outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah was very great and He wanted to go there and see if the outcry was as great as what had reached him but should he not already know? But He also says that their sin is very grievous so He did know, didn’t He?
- Never mind, God never actually went to the city with the angels (Genesis 19:1) so whatever the statement means, it does not mean that God had to go there in person.
- When Abraham appeals to God in verse 25, He that God would not kill the righteous with the wicked and suggests that such an action is wrong. But I do not suppose the children were counted among the righteous. Usually, when God passed judgment (on the whole world in the flood, on Sodom and Gomorrah, on the Canaanites, and several times on Israel and their captors) he killed children too. Are they not righteous? I do remember God saying in Genesis 8:21 that all the inclinations of man’s heart were evil from his childhood. Does that exempt children from being righteous? Well, no because if it did, then no man could be righteous in that sense either. They must be using the word ‘righteous’ in a different sense. But then maybe they were counted in families. It sounds lame even to my ears, but when God said that ‘Noah’ was righteous, He didn’t just save Noah, but He saved the whole family too. Maybe ‘one righteous man’ meant something like ‘one righteous family’.